Alright, Phillystang says God wants people to go to hell and sends them there against their will (Calvinist doctrine). So I have a question for Philly or another Calvinist:
2 Peter says that God is not "WILLING" that any should perish, but all come to repentance (be saved).
Philly will say this is only talking to the people in the church, but they're already saved. Why tell them that He's waiting for them to come to repentance in those verses? Makes no sense. So this statement is clearly meant for everyone in the world, and that God does not will anyone to go to hell. Besides, why does God need to tell Christians He's going to save them all when He's the one who chooses, not them (according to Philly's calvinist doctrine). He wouldn't worry about telling His people stuff like this - He's just save the people when He chose to do so and leave it at that.
Therefore, Philly, since you say God decides if a person goes to hell and their free-will doesn't matter, how do you reconcile this verse that says God doesn't will anyone to go to hell? Just curious is all...
2 Peter says that God is not "WILLING" that any should perish, but all come to repentance (be saved).
Philly will say this is only talking to the people in the church, but they're already saved. Why tell them that He's waiting for them to come to repentance in those verses? Makes no sense. So this statement is clearly meant for everyone in the world, and that God does not will anyone to go to hell. Besides, why does God need to tell Christians He's going to save them all when He's the one who chooses, not them (according to Philly's calvinist doctrine). He wouldn't worry about telling His people stuff like this - He's just save the people when He chose to do so and leave it at that.
Therefore, Philly, since you say God decides if a person goes to hell and their free-will doesn't matter, how do you reconcile this verse that says God doesn't will anyone to go to hell? Just curious is all...
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